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Indefinite social action indeed. The CDC states “No safe blood lead level in children has been identified.” Based on that logic, even if blood lead levels drop to ng/L or even pg/L, they’ll still be “too high.” Thank you for the very interesting post.

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My impression is that in Southern California there is a negative correlation between the prestige of a school, public or private, and it's proximity to a freeway. In the San Fernando Valley, the well-known schools tend to be located near the 101 Freeway and the less prestigious schools are off in the hinterlands.

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So this data you refer to and, I would argue, successfully debunk appears to all be correlational data. What do you think then of Keyes et al. (2023) paper which uses the quasi-random variation in exposure to lead following the Clean Air Act in the 1970s? In the paper they control for a lot of these confounding factors you identify as well and still find positive results. I wouldn't attempt to defend any of the correlational data you cite above, but this paper seems to have a fairly robust identification strategy (although I'd love to hear if you think I am missing something).

Studies like Buser & Scinicariello (2017) also control for these confounders. The study doesn't have a (quasi) causal identification strategy like Keyes, but if they are controlling for this wide suite of confounders (as you suggest the problem is) then do you think these results have some significance and weight, or will there always be confounders not controlled for in your opinion?

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The physiological effects of lead may be complicated by co-factors that vary across different groups and that, when last I checked, have toxicologists genuinely puzzled. I guess all the toxicology studies which have found a link might also be the result of confounding + confirmation bias etc. and the ones that haven't aren't. Have to find out what methodologies the toxicology studies use. If they differ significantly from those used by the social scientists, then this may not be a case of 'either / or' but 'both, depending'.

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How to interpret that black-white gap is 0,8 d in PISA?

https://nces.ed.gov/surveys/pisa/pisa2018/index.asp#/

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There are a few issues with just using the mean and sd for PISA(as well as other academic tests)

1. Generational effects, it seems like recent Black immigrants do better that legacy African Americans, for example a review in 2014 found a 0.99d for 3rd+ generation Blacks vs 2nd generation at 0.84d below 3rd+ generation Whites(https://www.researchgate.net/publication/301293927_EthnicRace_Differences_in_Aptitude_by_Generation_in_the_United_States_An_Exploratory_Meta-analysis), and recent data from PISA and the ABCD sample seems to indicate a gap of 0.6-0.7d.

2. Using averaged scores instead of sum scores. Because of the imperfect correlation between tests , composite scores are ideally used(fairly standard for IQ tests, see https://www.hmhco.com/~/media/sites/home/hmh-assessments/clinical/woodcock-johnson/pdf/wjiv/wjiv_asb_7.pdf), which are more extreme than the sum of their parts).

When you look at both factors, I found a 0.99d gap using averaged scores across math, reading and science, and 1.13 composite d(between 3rd+ generation blacks and whites).

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